In this post I will give a quick summary of how Wallace
deals with the problem of probability in the Everett interpretation followed by
Maudlin’s response and finishing with some questions/discussion points.
In the Everett interpretation there is no collapse of the
wavefunction during measurement, instead the state vector of the universe
evolves unitarily always. Standard quantum mechanics primarily makes statistical
predictions of the probabilities of various measurement outcomes following a
measurement via the Born rule. The problem of probability is, hence, the
problem of recovering the correct probabilistic predictions of quantum
mechanics.
Wallace’s solution is that the branch weight ie the modulus-squared amplitude of the components of
the universe’s state vector should be interpreted as objective probability in
the Everett interpretation. He shows that, following from some rationality assumptions,
a (rational) agent will use the branch weight as a subjective probability for
making decisions. Then according to a doctrine of functionalism—that if some
object is treated just like a particular type of thing then we should take it
to actually be that type of thing—he reasons that we should interpret branch
weight as objective probability as well.
Maudlin’s review starts by praising Wallace’s book’s
thoroughness and consideration; goes on to complain about Wallace’s claim that
the Everett interpretation is a `literal’ reading of quantum mechanics; raises
objections to physical ontology being based on patterns in the wavefunction;
and then moves onto what I will consider: the problem of probability.
According to Maudlin, the functionalism that Wallace employs
is a double-edged sword since it also implies that if branch weight is not
treated by rational agents as a subjective probability then nor should the
interpreter of quantum mechanics consider it to be an objective probability. He
then goes on to argue that a rational agent would not necessarily use branch
weights as subjective probabilities (although I don’t believe he goes so far as
to show that such an agent would not
use them as such).
Maudlin takes issue with one of Wallace’s axioms: that the
set of `rewards’ between which an agent may doesn’t allow for any considerations
of several (classically mutually exclusive) things happening simultaneously in different
branches. In particular an agent cannot consider the possibility of performing
a quantum experiment in order to get two simultaneous outcomes (albeit in
different branches). Maudlin suggests that if one takes the Everett
interpretation seriously one should certainly consider in one’s decision-making
that after a branching event several outcomes happen simultaneously. With this
axiom false (according to Maudlin) the edifice upon which Wallace’s
representation theorem rests falls, and Wallace cannot claim branch weights to
be rational subjective probabilities nor, via functionalism, objective
probabilities.
Discussion questions/points:
Wallace seems to imply (p148 first complete paragraph) that
symmetry principles are more applicable to probabilities for an Everettian.
Does his derivation of the Born rule in a special case in section 4.13 bear
this out? It’s not obvious to me that his argument really requires
Everettianism.
Maudlin’s claim that a rational agent might value two
results occurring simultaneously (on different branches) over either one result
occurring could be countered if Wallace could argue that such a preference
would just not be rational. Consider someone who regularly paid for quantum
experiments in order to get the `study both history and physics’ style outcomes
that Maudlin describes. It seems to me that such a person might quickly come to
decide that they are wasting their money after having conducted several such
experiments and still only experienced one outcome each time. Would this
behaviour be irrational or is it, as Maudlin seems to believe, an arrational
and valid preference?
Maudlin draws a distinction between betting in the normal
sense and betting on Everettian quantum experiments: `No wagering or betting is
involved, so the thorny issue of decision-making under uncertainty never
arises.’ (p801 final sentence of 2nd paragraph) This is reminiscent of the
`probability requires genuine uncertainty/indeterminacy’ objection that Wallace
deals with in section 4.2. Is it the same? or related? is it as easily
dismissed?